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A question for Lord Bearclaw of Gryphon Woods?

A question for Lord Bearclaw of Gryphon Woods? Topic: Case simple simon
July 20, 2019 / By Babe
Question: you are a very logical, spock-like person. I admire that. However to really not open your mind up in such fantasy must have made a boring child hood. I sympathsize with that. Perhaps your parents were raised in a similar way? as were you? In such a case it's very sad. It's easier to understand what a person comes from when understanding where they came from. I hope you can help us all understand this so that we can follow your reasoning to believe in the non physical and the phycical at the same time.
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Best Answers: A question for Lord Bearclaw of Gryphon Woods?

Abrianna Abrianna | 6 days ago
You are making illogical and irrational assumptions. My childhood was quite fun. I played (and still play) Dungeons & Dragons, other role-playing games, and was very happy as a child. I enjoyed fantasy and science fiction novels, movies, cartoons, and video games after Atari and Nintendo debuted. I enjoy these things - but I have the intelligence to realize they are not real. I enjoyed Star Wars - but I don't believe I am a Jedi. Logic and common sense must always take precedence over irrational fantasy, just as truth must always be given position over lies. My parents were quite supportive and permissive, given the fact that I was in gifted and accelerated classes from third grade on up and preferred the company of those of my own intellectual level to have fun with. What people cannot grasp is that there is no dichotomy between the spiritual concept and physical reality. I believe in the existence of God, although there is zero physical proof of His existence. I believe in the absolute logic of the Laws of physical science, and I believe that God placed those Laws in effect. God, as a spiritual being, cannot be proven or disproven using physical science. I believe that God initiated the Big Bang, and that He exists outside of time and space - in essence that time and space exist inside God. Magic is not a "energy source" accessible by simple human desire. I believe that "magic" is the power of demons, used by them at the behest of humans, and always used in a manner to seduce humans away from God. Biblical evidence of this is present in the stories of the Witch of Endor, the Egyptian sorcerers of Pharoah, the demon spirits that Jesus cast out of the men into the swine, and Simon Magus, whose death Peter brought about by rebuking him in the name of Christ and this caused him to fall from the sky where he was levitating, falling to his death. Humans who are drawn in to the overwhelming occult influences in our society and culture and who cannot resist the lure of "easy power" will not find what they seek of course, but what they will find are scam artists, paranoid schizophrenics, harmless "true believers", and the real monsters - social and sexual predators who use the belief of others to draw in their next victims. FYI: This is what YA! has to say regarding such use of the YA! Service: "Venting, ranting or using hate speech - Yahoo! Answers isn't a soapbox to vent personal frustrations or rant about issues. We are a community of people with diverse beliefs, opinions, and backgrounds, so please be respectful and keep hateful and incendiary comments off Yahoo! Answers. Chatting or otherwise violating the question-and-answer format.Yahoo! Answers is a community of questions and answers, not a chat room. If a post is neither a question nor an answer, it doesn’t belong here. If you’re looking for a place to chat with others, try Yahoo! Groups or Yahoo! Messenger Chat Rooms."
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Abrianna Originally Answered: Jehovah's Witnesses, Why wasn't John 20:28 translated My Lord and my a god instead of My Lord and MY God?
Gary likes to poke fun at what he calls the "trinity man-god", all the while he plainly follows the tongues of the fds slave-god! The WBTS can't translate John 20:28 into "a god" because this verse has the "ho theos" rule meaning God or The God, while John 1:1 has only "theos" which could mean either a god (if biased) or God (if unbiased)! The Koine Greek literal translation of what Thomas said is "The Lord of me and The God of me!" Thomas exclaimed it to Jesus, John wrote it about Jesus, and Jesus did not rebuke them for calling Him their God, but instead He confirmed them as believers! Unfortunately the JWs don't share the same belief as those two Apostles like I do! They only share the belief that got started with the heretic named Arius and his modern disciples who are now in the Brooklyn Headquarters, the fds slave-god!
Abrianna Originally Answered: Jehovah's Witnesses, Why wasn't John 20:28 translated My Lord and my a god instead of My Lord and MY God?
That's like asking "Why do Trinitarians keep 1 John 5:7 in the Trinitarian Bible's when they know it is spurious?" The NWT is an accurate translation. John 1:1 admittedly can be translated either way... "a god" or "god". It does not identify the Word as God but explains that the Word is the same substance of God. That is why many translator will use the words "divine", deity" or "what God was, the Word was". John 20:28 has been accurately translated. It does not mean Thomas thought that Jesus was Jehovah. He was given the same information as the other disciples in to whom Jesus was and who he worshiped. John 20:17,18 Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’” Mary Magdalene came and brought the news to the disciples: “I have seen the Lord!” and that he said these things to her. Here are some great articles exposing the trinity to be a false god. http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/... Maybe they will jar your brain loose from the false teachings you hold as truth and come back to the Christian congregation Jehovah's people. edit Most Trinitarian critics.... they are biased in favor the trinity man-god doctrines. @chigirl koine greek does not have the word a, correct. "a god" means "divine" or "deity". John 1:1 was not identifying the Word as God, but saying the Word was of the same substance of God. edit: You should ask yourself that very same question. Are you indoctrinated by the false teachings of the trinity man-god worshipers? What hurdles did Edgar Goodspeed have to jump in order to translate John 1:1 as "And the Word was divine."? John 1:1 has been a discussion for debate since the 4th century. It is sad, though, that instead of commenting on what I said, you slyly turn the discussion into why I believe the FDS. I believe what I believe because I decided it was truth, not because somebody else showed me. I could have decided that Jehovah's Witnesses were not truth but I would always have believed that those who worshiped the trinity man-god were wrong. This trinity man-god belief is not a Bible teaching. You look at all the "proof texts" and find that they are quoting out of context. Scriptures like John 8:58, John 17:3 and even John 3:16 are all explained away to say something the Bible does not say. I found this information out before I became a Christian witness to Jehovah. I could not get over the fact that Jesus told us that the Father was the only true God and yet billions of people around the world ignore that fact or do not know. My father worships the trinity man-god and we have always not see eye to eye with another about that. He believes in ignorance like millions and maybe billions of people do today. When we get together, we talk about other things but nothing spiritual. There is nothing you can show me that I already do not know about the trinity man-god.

Syd Syd
You know, this isn't a place for chatting. If you have a question for this individual, why not email them instead. ETA: Kilroymaster - Perhaps re-read the terms and service of Yahoo! Answers. The idea of this place is to ask questions and seek answers, not carry on a conversation, or "chat". You want to carry on a conversation, email or find a chat service. This is NOT the place to do this. If you look under "Report Abuse", under the first heading under "Types of Abuse" it states "Chat". If chat wasn't against the rules, then why is it under "Types of abuse" for Yahoo Answers???
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Paul Paul
This is the correct place for chatting for that is why this system was created...........Now if BEAR-CLAW refuse to believe that the supernatural and the paranormal exist with or with-out Bear-Claws permission then that is on Bear-Claw.................. But we do live in a very unique and strange world where all things are possible and Bear-Claw will have to find that out the very hard way just like million of other people will.......................................
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Paul Originally Answered: Don't understand this question. Lord of the Flies by William Golding.?
To expand on what monie said...when they say "as a whole," they mean they are not looking for just one example, but how Golding continues the theme throughout the book. Make sense?

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